Hey, an interesting thought occurred to me about the Eorlingas settling Calenardhon. The native hillmen, or Dunlendings as they came to be called, were apparently pushed off their land by the invading Northmen. Did Gondor have the right to award fiefs in that land to these northern folk, while completely disregarding their subjects already living there? I know Calenardhon was de-populated because of plagues, war, etc., but there were still some people already living there! I believe Saruman was at least right in telling his Dunland allies that they were unjustly driven off their land by the invading horsemen. In fact, the situation of a fair-haired northern people driving off a supposedly "inferior" culture into the hills seems to me to be very reminiscent of the Anglo-Saxon invasion of Celtic Britain. Could Tolkien be basing the history of Rohan off of this occurrence in Dark Age Britain, and if so, is he showing a degree of Anglo-Saxon bias to the Celtic people? Yet if this is so, how come Tolkien bases a good deal of Sindarin Elvish off of Welsh, a Celtic tongue spoken by the very people who were driven off by the Saxons/Angles? Why does he indicate a degree of respect to the Celtic world, while also creating a scenario that might be showing favourtism to the Anglo-Saxon invasions? Any discussion on this topic would be much appreciated.

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